Greetings and Happy Sabbath saints,

If you can help dissolve this conundrum.
Please consider the following carefully. You can share with others for a more profound discussion of this issue.

The Bible says that Christ was given as a ransom (Mat 20:28; Mark 10:45; 1 Timothy 2:6).
Now a ransom requires three players.

1. A captured or bonded person(s) or otherwise one in need of redemption – that’s the captured or bonded.
2. A person who has captured or bonded another and is demanding a ransom to release the bonded person – that’s the capturer or bondholder.
3. A third person usually a close family member of the captured person who then gives the ransom – that’s the redeemer.

Here, I am not talking necessarily of a kidnap situation, but even of a ransom as described in the Old Testament (a ransom for one who has sold himself into bondage, for example).

Please note that none of these 3 persons can play more than one role in this ransom situation. That means, the captured cannot be the capturer at the same time, neither can the capturer be the redeemer. If anyone of them played more than one role, the whole thing would be fake. For example if the capturer is also the captured, that’s fake, there is no more ransom situation.

Based on this ransom situation we can conclude that.
1. humanity is the captured/sold
2. the devil (also sin and death) is the capturer
3. the Father is the redeemer (John 3:16, he gave the Son),
4. and Christ’s life is the ransom, i.e. to shed his blood is to satisfy the ransom demand.

If we agree so far, let me develop the other side of the conundrum I have.
The Bible teaches that the law is the transcript of God’s character. Also, the Bible teaches that the Law of God requires the death of the sinner (without blood there is no remission of sins (Hebrews 9:22) and also Romans 7). Therefore, if the law of God required the death of a sinner, God himself required the death of Christ on behalf of humanity.

Now the conundrum I am facing. If God required/commanded the death of His Son, then on the ransom equation God is the one requesting or demanding a ransom, the capturer.

If He is the one requesting the ransom, how can he be the same to give the ransom? How can God require a ransom to redeem His own Son (or humanity) from Himself.

To put it in other words, if God requires and commands the death of a sinner, then automatically, He becomes the capturer. Yet giving the ransom means He is also the redeemer at the same time. More importantly is that by this, the devil has been freed from any role in the ransom equation.

Please read this and consider it carefully, and if you may please solve this conundrum for me.

As an offshoot to this conundrum, could you also explain how it is with God’s character, that on one hand He required or commanded His Son to be killed, yet, those who killed His Son were considered guilty for doing that which God required to be done.
Could anyone have sacrificed Christ without being guilty of doing so? If not possible to kill the Son of God without being guilty of it, how can God require the death of his son, which requirement would need God’s law (thou shalt not kill) to be broken for God’s requirement to be fulfilled?

Regards,
Rowan.
TRF Ministries
therockfortress@gmail.com
http://www.therockfortress.net

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